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Question 1:

Which of the following is a safeguard that could be used to validate a service provider and the authenticity of their service?

A. Information graphing

B. Code signing

C. Service signing

D. Code graphing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://csrc.nist.gov/CSRC/media/Publications/white-paper/2018/01/26/security-considerations-for-code-signing/final/documents/security-considerations-for-code-signing.pdf



Question 2:

An organization is developing employee training content to increase awareness of Payment Card Industry (PCI) standards. What are the three types of awareness roles applicable to the organization?

A. All personnel, specialized, management

B. Standard, privileged, administrator

C. Basic, intermediate, advanced

D. Technical, operational, administrative

Correct Answer: D



Question 3:

Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support?

A. Multicast and broadcast messages

B. Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols

C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems

D. Synchronization of multiple devices

Correct Answer: C



Question 4:

What is the PRIMARY goal for using Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC) to sign records?

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Accountability

D. Availability

Correct Answer: A



Question 5:

A development operations team would like to start building new applications delegating the cybersecurity responsibility as much as possible to the service provider. Which of the following environments BEST fits their need?

A. Cloud Virtual Machines (VM)

B. Cloud application container within a Virtual Machine (VM)

C. On premises Virtual Machine (VM)

D. Self-hosted Virtual Machine (VM)

Correct Answer: A



Question 6:

What is the benefit of an operating system (OS) feature that is designed to prevent an application from executing code from a non-executable memory region?

A. Identifies which security patches still need to be installed on the system

B. Stops memory resident viruses from propagating their payload

C. Reduces the risk of polymorphic viruses from encrypting their payload

D. Helps prevent certain exploits that store code in buffers

Correct Answer: C



Question 7:

When would an organization review a Business Continuity Management (BCM) system?

A. When major changes occur on systems

B. When personnel changes occur

C. Before and after Disaster Recovery (DR) tests

D. At planned intervals

Correct Answer: C



Question 8:

What is the MAIN reason to ensure the appropriate retention periods are enforced for data stored on electronic media?

A. To reduce the carbon footprint by eliminating paper

B. To create an inventory of data assets stored on disk for backup recovery

C. To declassify information that has been improperly classified

D. To reduce the risk of loss, unauthorized access, use, modification, and disclosure

Correct Answer: D



Question 9:

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding equivalence class testing?

A. Test inputs are obtained from the derived boundaries of the given functional specifications.

B. It is characterized by the stateless behavior of a process implemented in a function.

C. An entire partition can be covered by considering only one representative value from that partition.

D. It is useful for testing communications protocols and graphical user interfaces.

Correct Answer: C



Question 10:

An organization would like to ensure that all new users have a predefined departmental access template applied upon creation. The organization would also like additional access for users to be granted on a per-project basis. What type of user access administration is BEST suited to meet the organization\’s needs?

A. Hybrid

B. Federated

C. Decentralized

D. Centralized

Correct Answer: A



Question 11:

Which of the following alarm systems is recommended to detect intrusions through windows in a high-noise, occupied environment?

A. Acoustic sensor

B. Motion sensor

C. Shock sensor

D. Photoelectric sensor

Correct Answer: C



Question 12:

An IT technician suspects a break in one of the uplinks that provides connectivity to the core switch. Which of the following command-line tools should the technician use to determine where the incident is occurring?

A. nslookup

B. show config

C. netstat

D. show interface

E. show counters

Correct Answer: D



Question 13:

A developer is creating an application that requires secure logging of all user activity. What is the BEST permission the developer should assign to the log file to ensure requirements are met?

A. Read

B. Execute

C. Write

D. Append

Correct Answer: D



Question 14:

Two computers, each with a single connection on the same physical 10 gigabit Ethernet network segment, need to communicate with each other. The first machine has a single Internet Protocol (IP) Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) address of 192.168.1.3/30 and the second machine has an IP/CIDR address 192.168.1.6/30. Which of the following is correct?

A. Since each computer is on a different layer 3 network, traffic between the computers must be processed by a network bridge in order to communicate.

B. Since each computer is on the same layer 3 network, traffic between the computers may be processed by a network bridge in order to communicate.

C. Since each computer is on the same layer 3 network, traffic between the computers may be processed by a network router in order to communicate.

D. Since each computer is on a different layer 3 network, traffic between the computers must be processed by a network router in order to communicate.

Correct Answer: A



Question 15:

Which of the following is a covert channel type?

A. Pipe

B. Memory

C. Storage

D. Monitoring

Correct Answer: C