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Question 1:
An organization recently released a zero-trust policy that will enforce who is able to remotely access certain data. Authenticated users who access the data must have a need to know, depending on their level of permissions.
Which of the following is the first step the organization should take when implementing the policy?
A. Determine a quality CASB solution.
B. Configure the DLP policies by user groups.
C. Implement agentless NAC on boundary devices.
D. Classify all data on the file servers.
Correct Answer: D
zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3. According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls. Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls. Reference: Zero Trust implementation guidance | Microsoft Learn
Question 2:
A recent security breach exploited software vulnerabilities in the firewall and within the network management solution. Which of the following will MOST likely be used to identify when the breach occurred through each device?
A. SIEM correlation dashboards
B. Firewall syslog event logs
C. Network management solution login audit logs
D. Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors
Correct Answer: A
SIEM could tell when the breach occurred in firewall AND in network management solution
Question 3:
Server administrators want to configure a cloud solution so that computing memory and processor usage is maximized most efficiently across a number or virtual servers. They also need to avoid potential dental-of-service situations caused by availability. Which of the following should administrators configure to maximize system availability while efficiently utilizing available computing power?
A. Dynamic resource allocation
B. High availably
C. Segmentation
D. Container security
Correct Answer: A
To maximize system availability and efficiently utilize available computing power, administrators should configure dynamic resource allocation. Dynamic resource allocation is a technique that allows a system to automatically adjust the allocation of resources, such as memory and processing power, to different applications or processes in response to changing workloads or conditions. This can help to ensure that computing resources are used efficiently and that the system is able to respond to changes in demand without encountering performance issues or becoming unavailable.
Question 4:
Which of the following would satisfy three-factor authentication?
A. Password, retina scanner, and NFC card
B. Password, fingerprint scanner, and retina scanner
C. Password, hard token, and NFC card
D. Fingerpnint scanner, hard token, and retina scanner
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Company engineers regularly participate in a public Internet forum with other engineers throughout the industry. Which of the following tactics would an attacker MOST likely use in this scenario?
A. Watering-hole attack
B. Credential harvesting
C. Hybrid warfare
D. Pharming
Correct Answer: A
watering hole attack –> An attack in which an attacker targets specific groups or organizations, discovers which websites they frequent, and injects malicious code into those sites.
Question 6:
Which of the following in the incident response process is the BEST approach to improve the speed of the identification phase?
A. Activate verbose logging in all critical assets.
B. Tune monitoring in order to reduce false positive rates.
C. Redirect all events to multiple syslog servers.
D. Increase the number of sensors present on the environment.
Correct Answer: B
Getting accurate report will allow analyst to pinpoint the problem fast.
not A, cause there is no point focusing on Critical Asset when point of entry is likely some host.
not C, cause having your logs distributed makes it harder to aggregate.
not d, more sensor will produce more log for analyst to sift through.
Question 7:
Which of the following is a reason why an organization would define an AUP?
A. To define the lowest level of privileges needed for access and use of the organization\’s resources
B. To define the set of rules and behaviors for users of the organization\’s IT systems
C. To define the intended partnership between two organizations
D. To define the availability and reliability characteristics between an IT provider and consumer
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
A worldwide manufacturing company has been experiencing email account compromised. In one incident, a user logged in from the corporate office in France, but then seconds later, the same user account attempted a login from Brazil.
Which of the following account policies would BEST prevent this type of attack?
A. Network location
B. Impossible travel time
C. Geolocation
D. Geofencing
Correct Answer: B
Impossible travel time is a policy: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/defender-cloud-apps/anomaly-detection-policy
Question 9:
Which biometric error would allow an unauthorized user to access a system?
A. False acceptance
B. False entrance
C. False rejection
D. False denial
Correct Answer: A
False Acceptance – There are only two metrics that are used to determine the performance of biometrics: FAR (False Acceptance Rate) and FRR (False Rejection Rate). False Acceptance Rate is a metric for biometric performance that determines the number of instances where unauthorized persons were incorrectly authorized. For this question, a biometric error would mean that someone was authorized when they weren\’t supposed to be authorized.
Question 10:
A network administrator would like to configure a site-to-site VPN utilizing iPSec. The administrator wants the tunnel to be established with data integrity encryption, authentication and anti- replay functions Which of the following should the administrator use when configuring the VPN?
A. AH
B. EDR
C. ESP
D. DNSSEC
Correct Answer: C
https://www.hypr.com/encapsulating-security-payload-esp/ Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a member of the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) set of protocols that encrypt and authenticate the packets of data between computers using a Virtual Private Network (VPN). The focus and layer on which ESP operates makes it possible for VPNs to function securely.
Question 11:
A retail store has a business requirement to deploy a kiosk computer In an open area The kiosk computer\’s operating system has been hardened and tested. A security engineer IS concerned that someone could use removable media to install a rootkit. Which of the should the security engineer configure to BEST protect the kiosk computer?
A. Measured boot
B. Boot attestation
C. UEFI
D. EDR
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
DRAG DROP
A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.
Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.
Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/O, storage requirements. Instructions:
1.
All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary
2.
Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes
3.
If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes
4.
Server profiles may be dragged only once
Instructions: If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
RAID-0 is known as striping. It is not a fault tolerant solution but does improve disk performance for read/write operations. Striping requires a minimum of two disks and does not use parity. RAID-0 can be used where performance is required
over fault tolerance, such as a media streaming server.
RAID-1 is known as mirroring because the same data is written to two disks so that the two disks have identical data. This is a fault tolerant solution that halves the storage space. A minimum of two disks are used in mirroring and does not
use parity. RAID-1 can be used where fault tolerance is required over performance, such as on an authentication server.
RAID-5 is a fault tolerant solution that uses parity and striping. A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 with one disk\’s worth of space being used for parity information.
However, the parity information is distributed across all the disks. RAID-5 can recover from a sing disk failure.
RAID-6 is a fault tolerant solution that uses dual parity and striping. A minimum of four disks are required for RAID-6. Dual parity allows RAID-6 to recover from the simultaneous failure of up to two disks. Critical data should be stored on a
RAID-6 system.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 34-36, 234-235
Question 13:
A company Is concerned about is security after a red-team exercise. The report shows the team was able to reach the critical servers due to the SMB being exposed to the Internet and running NTLMV1, Which of the following BEST explains the findings?
A. Default settings on the servers
B. Unsecured administrator accounts
C. Open ports and services
D. Weak Data encryption
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
A company is moving its retail website to a public cloud provider. The company wants to tokenize credit card data but not allow the cloud provider to see the stored credit card information. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?
A. WAF
B. CASB
C. VPN
D. TLS
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
In which of the following common use cases would steganography be employed?
A. Obfuscation
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Blockchain
Correct Answer: A